CTFL-2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level 2018 Exam

1. General

1.1. Validity
This document pertains only to the Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus Version 2018.
All ISTQB Foundation Level Version 2018 examinations run after 4 June, 2019 (if running English exams) or 4 December, 2019 (if exams run in a language other than English) shall comply with the structure and rules described in this document, regardless of language and media.

1.2. Purpose
This document contains structure and rules for the setup of examinations related to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus Version 2018.

1.3. Scope
This document covers:
a) the number of questions per examination;
b) the length of the examination;
c) the distribution of questions per topic (chapter); and,
d) the distribution of questions per learning objective.

1.4. References
[QWRR_2017] ISTQB - Question Writing Rules & Recommendations Version 2017
[CTFL_2018] ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus Version 2018

1.5. Document Responsibility
General responsibility for this document is under the ISTQB Examination Working Group.

3. Certified Tester Foundation Level Exam Rules
3.1. The Certified Tester Foundation Level Examinations
3.1.1. The Certified Tester Foundation Level examinations shall be based on the Certified Tester Foundation Level syllabus [CTFL_2018]. Answers to examination questions may require the use of material from more than one section of the syllabus.
3.1.2. All learning objectives (on cognitive levels K1 to K3) in the syllabus are examinable.
3.1.3 All keywords in the syllabus are examinable for their definition (K1).
3.2. General Foundation Level Exam Structure
3.2.1. Each Certified Tester Foundation Level examination shall comprise a set of multiple-choice questions based on the Learning Objectives for that specific syllabus. The level of coverage and distribution of questions has been based on the Learning Objectives, their K-levels, and their level of importance as evaluated by the ISTQB. Details on the structure for each examination module are provided in section 4 below.
3.2.2. In general, K1 and K2 questions are expected to take no more than 1 minute to read and answer, K3 questions are expected to take 3 minutes. The exam author should keep in mind that this is only a guideline for an average time, and that it is likely that some questions will take longer and others will take less time for examinees to complete.
3.2.3. The exam shall comprise 40 multiple-choice questions. Each correct answer has a value of one point. The maximum possible score for each examination is 40 points.
3.2.4. The time allowed for each examination is exactly 60 minutes. If the candidate’s native language is not the examination language, the candidate is allowed an additional 25% time.
3.2.5. A score of at least 65% (26 points or more) is required to pass:
3.3. Specific Rules
3.3.1. For the rules and recommendations for writing multiple-choice questions see the ISTQB - Question Writing Rules & Recommendations [QWRR_2017].
3.3.2. All questions shall assess at least one Learning Objective from the Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus under examination or test for recall of Glossary terms. Questions may use terms and concepts that exist in K1 level sections as the candidates are expected to Module Number of questions Number of possible points Passing score (65%) Exam Length (in minutes) Exam Length + 25% (in minutes)
3.4. Question Distribution
3.4.1. The exam structure for the Certified Tester Foundation Level examination is provided in the following table. Each of the exams requires mandatory questions targeted to specific Learning Objectives as well as a specified number of questions based on “selectable” Learning Objectives.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following BEST describes a Test Case?
A. A statement about “what to test” in terms of measurable coverage criteria from analysis of the test basis.
B. A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and postconditions developed based on test conditions.
C. A description of the test objectives to be achieved and the means and the schedule for achieving them.
D. A source to determine expected results to compare with the actual result of the system under test.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Testing and Debugging are key activities in the software development lifecycle.
Which of the following are DEBUGGING activities?

a) Designing tests to find failures.
b) Locating the cause of failures.
c) Analysing and fixing the defects.
d) Executing tests to show failures.

A. a and d.
B. a and b.
C. b and c.
D. c and d.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following options describe the chain of events in the correct sequence?

A. Error, fault, failure.
B. Fault, bug, mistake.
C. Mistake, failure, fault.
D. Failure, bug, error.

Correct Answer: A
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VCS-325 Administration of Veritas Backup Exec 20.1 Exam

Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, all certification exams, targeting customers in an administrative role, cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, deployment, product administration, management, day-to-day maintenance, and basic troubleshooting.

The program consists of the Backup Exec 20.1 technical exam at a product/version level that validates the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to successfully administer Backup Exec 20.1.

Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS) certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) certification in Data Protection.

Exam Details
# of Questions: 75 - 85
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 70%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)

Recommended Courses:
Veritas Backup Exec 20.1: Administration

Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.

Recommended preparation steps:
Exam Preparation Guide (PDF): Download and review the guide to understand the scope of topics covered in the certification exam and how they map to the key lessons and topics in the associated training course(s).
Attend recommended training classes listed above.
Gain hands-on experience with the product. 6-9 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment is recommended.

In addition, you should be familiar with the following product documentation and web sites:
Veritas Backup Exec 20.1 Licensing Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 20.1 Readme First Release Notes
Veritas Backup Exec 20.1 Administrator's Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 20.1 Software Compatibility List (SCL)
Veritas Backup Exec 20.1 Hardware and Cloud Storage Compatibility List (HCL)
Backup Exec Product Documentation
Backup Exec Product Page
Backup Exec Technical Support
Backup Exec Updates, Patches and News
Veritas Communities

Recommended hands-on experience (real world or virtual):
Recommended 6-9 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment.Describe the basic components, devices, terms, and concepts of Backup Exec.
Install Backup Exec and add additional agents and options on the Backup Exec server after the installation.
Describe the features of Backup Exec.
Describe the various backup methods available in Backup Exec.
Configure preferences and global settings.
Configure storage devices.
Create jobs to backup, restore, convert, and duplicate.
Install and configure agents for remote servers.
Add and manage protected server resources.
Install Backup Exec updates and apply updates to Windows agents.
Run inventory and catalog and other utility jobs.
Identify agents and features used with Backup Exec in their environment.
Configure enhanced backup job functionality (e.g., GRT, Instant GRT, Disk Staging, Duplication of backup sets, data encryption, snapshot, backup to cloud, and virtual environments).
Perform basic troubleshooting (e.g., restart services, interpret job logs, check Event Viewer, check Configuration Tasks Widget, run Backup Exec troubleshooting tools, etc.).
Import, export and backup the Database Encryption Key.

QUESTION 1
What are two results of moving a server to the Retired Servers group? (Choose two.)

A. The server is removed from the All Servers group.
B. Scheduled backups for the server will be discontinued.
C. The server is ineligible for restore operations.
D. The server is ineligible for new backup operations.
E. Information about the server is removed from Backup Exec.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
An administrator needs to restore a folder to a running Hyper-V virtual machine.
What must be installed for the restore to complete successfully?

A. Agent for VMware and Hyper-V on the virtual machine
B. Agent for Windows on the Hyper-V host server
C. Agent for VMware and Hyper-V on the Hyper-V host server
D. Agent for Windows on the virtual machine

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Backup Exec reports can be manually saved in any of the following five file formats; which two of these formats can the reports initially be displayed as? (Choose two.)

A. XML
B. CSV
C. HTML
D. PDF
E. XLS

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Where is the metadata for the backup sets contained?

A. in the ...Backup Exec\Catalogs directory
B. in the ...Backup Exec\Data directory
C. in the Backup Exec Database
D. in the HKLM\SOFTWARE\Veritas\Backup Exec registry key

Correct Answer: A
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Mulesoft MCD - ASSOC MuleSoft Certified Developer - Integration and API Associate (Mule 3) Exam

Description
MuleSoft Certified Developer - API Design Associate (RAML 1.0)A MuleSoft Certified Developer – API Design Associate should be able to create well-designed, modular API definitions using RAML 1.0 and Anypoint Platform. The MCD – API Design Associate (RAML 1.0) exam validates that an API designer has the required knowledge and skills to:

Translate design requirements into API resources and methods.
Use RAML to define API resources, methods, parameters, and responses.
Model data in APIs using data types.
Minimize repetition in API definitions using resource types and traits.
Modularize APIs using libraries, overlays, and extensions.
Specify API security schemes.
Version APIs.
Document and test APIs and make them discoverable.

A downloadable datasheet for the exam can be found here.

Format Format: Multiple-choice, open book, unproctored online or in a testing center
Length: 47 questions
Duration: 90 minutes
Pass score: 75%
Language: English

The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each attempt.
Cost $125
0.5 Flexible Training Credit
A voucher obtained by attending the instructor-led Anypoint Platform: API Design course

Validity
The certification expires two years from the date of passing.

Preparation
The best preparation for the exam is to take the instructor-led Anypoint Platform: API Design course. Candidates should be familiar with all of the content in the course and be able to apply the concepts in actual projects.

Explaining RESTful API Design
Describe the common web API formats including SOAP, RPC, and REST
Describe REST API architecture
List the rules for retaining REST principles in APIs
Describe design-first approach for REST APIs

API:DES Module 1

Translating Functional Requirements for APIs
Identify different categories and actions for a REST API
Convert categories to resources
Select HTTP methods to support the actions on the categories

API:DES Module 2

Describing API-Led Connectivity and the API Lifecycle
Describe the API development lifecycle
Explain MuleSoft's API-led connectivity approach
Describe the API design lifecycle with Anypoint Platform

API:DES Module 3

Defining Resources and Methods
Use RAML 1.0 to create API definitions
Define resources and methods in RAML API definitions
Specify URI parameters for necessary resource methods

API:DES Module 4

Specifying Responses
Describe response structure in HTTP methods
Use status codes in HTTP responses
Add error handling and caching information to HTTP responses
Select and specify the types of content returned in HTTP responses

API:DES Module 5

Documenting and Testing APIs

Add documentation and description nodes to RAML definitions
Use the mocking service to create API endpoints
Use the API Console to test API endpoints

API:DES Module 6

Making APIs Discoverable
Create API Portals for learning about and testing APIs
Customize API Portals with themes
Publish API definitions to the Anypoint Exchange for discovery
Gather feedback from API consumers

API:DES Module 7

Modeling Data
Create datatypes and their properties for resources
Create examples for datatypes
Include datatypes and examples in resource methods
Create scenarios in API Notebook to manipulate data

API:DES Module 8

Reusing Patterns
Create and reference resource types patterns for reusability
Use traits to modularize methods

API:DES Module 9

Modularizing APIs
Use libraries for greater API composability
Use overlays to internationalize resources
Use extensions to promote portability to test APIs in multiple environments

API:DES Module 10

Securing APIs
Define API security requirements
Use security schemes to apply resource and method level policies
Define custom security schemes for APIs
Apply an OAuth2.0 external provider policy to resource methods

API:DES Module 11

Enhancing API Responses using Hypermedia
Describe hypermedia
Simplify API discoverability using hypermedia
Use hypermedia to enhance API responses
Modify API definitions to generate state-specific client responses in resource methods

API:DES Module 12

Versioning APIs
Explain when and when not to version APIs
Describe the methods for versioning APIs
Document changes in new API versions using shared API Portals
Deprecate older versions of APIs

API:DES Module 13
Explain when and when not to version APIs
Describe the methods for versioning APIs
Document changes in new API versions using shared API Portals
Deprecate older versions of APIs

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PRINCE2-Re-Registration PRINCE2 Re-Registration Exam

For those who’ve passed the PRINCE2 Practitioner exam, there are a number of benefits to maintaining your Registered Practitioner status. It shows you’re on top of the latest best practice developments. Remember that PRINCE2 goes through revisions. The resources you used to pass the Practitioner exam may not be up-to-date.

Being a Registered PRINCE2 Practitioner will also help in the job market. People you’re competing with may have a Practitioner certification. However, if their Registered Practitioner status has slipped, then you can show that your best practice knowledge is more current. It also indicates a desire for continual improvement. These are some of the common questions from PRINCE2 delegates who want to stay on top of their game.

When does my PRINCE2 qualification expire?
PRINCE2 certifications themselves never expire. This is true for both Foundation and Practitioner. Only the status as a Registered Practitioner has an expiration date.

When does my Registered Practitioner status expire?

The status as a Registered Practitioner expires 5 calendar years after certification. You can take the re-registration exam 3 years after passing the Practitioner exam.

How do I check the expiration date?
The expiration date is on the Practitioner certificate. Because AXELOS owns PRINCE2, candidates also appear on their successful candidates register. If you haven’t opted out of appearing on the register, you (and potential employers) can confirm your registered status and expiration date.

What happens after the expiration date?

If you wait longer than 5 years and your status lapses, you can still take the re-registration exam and regain the status. In the interim, you’re not allowed to advertise yourself as a Registered Practitioner. Taking the re-registration exam before it expires will save you having to rewrite your CV and reprint business cards.

Do I have to re-take the Practitioner exam?
You never have to retake the Practitioner exam after passing it. The re-registration has a different format. The two formats are displayed for comparison below. The key takeaway is that the re-registration exam is less intensive than Practitioner’s.

Practitioner Exam: Re-Registration Exam:
Objective testing 8 questions - 10 question items per question, each worth one mark

44 out of 80 marks to pass - 55%
2.5 hours (150 minutes) duration
Open book (official PRINCE2 manual only)

Objective testing

3 questions - 10 question items per question, each worth one mark

17 out of 30 marks to pass - 55%

1 hour (60 minute) duration

Open book (official PRINCE2 manual only)

How can I be sure I’ll pass the re-registration exam 5 years after the Practitioner one?
You’re not expected to remember all the course material after 5 years. That’s why we’re accredited to provide re-registration courses. Our online re-registration course gives you the exam plus full access to all the Foundation and Practitioner resources. The blended learning course goes further with a classroom revision workshop. If you have any more questions or queries, feel free to visit our contact page.

Update: As of the PRINCE2 2017 update, there is no longer a dedicated re-registration exam. To stay registered, candidates now have to re-take the Practitioner exam every 3 years or record 20 Continued Professional Development (CPD) points annually.

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QUESTION 1
When considering risks, which describes an opportunity in a project?

A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives

Answer: B
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about lines of authority and reporting are true?
1. The Project Manager has day-to-day control for a management stage within the limits laid,
2. If a Team Manager forecasts a deviation beyond Work Package tolerances, this should be referred to the
Project Manager down by the Project Board.

A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true

Answer: C
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 3
Which may be funded from a risk budget?

A. Corrections due to off-specifications
B. Impact analysis of requests for change
C. Implementation of a fallback plan
D. Preparation of the Risk Management Strategy

Answer: C
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 4
What is the first task of product-based planning?

A. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan
B. Write the Project Product Description
C. Identify dependencies
D. Create the product breakdown structure

Answer: B
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 5
How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Answer: D
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ADM-201 Administration Essentials for New Admins

The Salesforce ADM-201 exam preparation guide is designed to provide candidates with necessary information about the Administrator exam. It includes exam summary, sample questions, practice test, objectives and ways to interpret the exam objectives to enable candidates to assess the types of questions-answers that may be asked during the Salesforce Certified Administrator exam.

It is recommended for all the candidates to refer the ADM-201 objectives and sample questions provided in this preparation guide. The Salesforce Administrator certification is mainly targeted to the candidates who want to build their career in Administrator domain and demonstrate their expertise. We suggest you to use practice exam listed in this cert guide to get used to with exam environment and identify the knowledge areas where you need more work prior to taking the actual Salesforce Administrator exam.

Salesforce ADM-201 Exam Summary:
Exam Name Salesforce Administrator
Exam Code ADM-201
Exam Price Registration fee: $200 USD
Retake fee: $100 USD
Duration 105 minutes
Number of Questions 60
Passing Score 65%
Recommended Training / Books Administration Essentials for New Admins (ADM 201)
Administration Essentials for New Admins and Certification (ADM 201C)
Schedule Exam PEARSON VUE
Sample Questions Salesforce ADM-201 Sample Questions
Recommended Practice Salesforce Certified Administrator Practice Test
Salesforce Administrator Syllabus:

Section Objectives Weights
Organizational Setup - Describe the information found in the company information (for example, fiscal year, business hours, currency management, default settings).

- Distinguish between the various UI features that an administrator controls, including the implications (for example, UI settings, search settings, list views, homepage layouts). 3%
User Setup - Identify the steps to set up and/or maintain a user (for example, assign licenses, reset passwords, and resolve locked user accounts).

- Understand the implications of activating, deactivating, or freezing a user. 7%
Security and Access - Explain the various organization security controls (for example, passwords, IP restrictions, identity confirmation, network settings).
- Given a user request scenario, apply the appropriate security controls based on the features and capabilities of the Salesforce sharing model (for example, organization-wide defaults, roles and the role hierarchy, manual sharing, sharing rules, and public groups).
- Given a scenario, determine the appropriate use of a custom profile or permission set using the various profile settings and permissions.

- Describe how folders can be used to organize and secure communication templates, dashboards, and reports. 13%
Standard and Custom Objects - Describe the standard object architecture and relationship model.
- Explain how to create, delete, and customize fields and page layouts on standard and custom objects, and understand the implications of deleting fields.

- Given a scenario, determine how to create and assign page layouts, record types, and business processes for custom and standard objects. 14%
Sales and Marketing Applications - Given a scenario, identify the capabilities and implications of the sales process.
- Given a scenario, identify the appropriate sales productivity features using opportunity tools, and know when products and Price Books should be used.
- Describe the capabilities of lead automation tools and campaign management.

- Describe the capability of Salesforce Content. 14%
Service and Support Applications - Describe the capabilities of case management (for example, case processes, case settings, and case comments).
- Given a scenario, identify how to automate case management (for example, case assignment, auto-response, escalation, web-to-case, email-to-case, case teams).
- Describe the capabilities of Salesforce Knowledge.

- Describe the capabilities of the Community application (for example, Ideas and Answers). 13%
Activity Management and Collaboration - Describe the capabilities of activity management (for example, manage tasks, events, public calendars, multi-day events.

- Describe the features of Chatter (for example, feed, groups, following, security). 3%
Data Management - Describe the considerations when importing, updating, transferring, and mass deleting data (for example, CSV files, data quality, field mapping, record IDs, external IDs, duplicate records).
- Given a scenario, identify tools and use cases for managing data (for example, dataloader, data import wizard).
- Describe the capabilities and implications of data validation tools.

- Describe the different ways to backup data (for example, data export service, exports, dataloader). 10%
Analytics—Reports and Dashboards - Describe the options available when creating or customizing a report (for example, report type, report format, fields, summarizing data, filtering data, charting, scheduling, and conditional highlighting).
- Describe the impact of the sharing model on reports.
- Describe the options available when creating and modifying dashboards (for example, dashboard components, data sources, chart types, scheduling, and running user).

- Describe the capabilities of custom report types. 10%
Workflow/Process Automation - Given a scenario, identify the appropriate automation solution based on the capabilities of workflow/process.

- Describe capabilities and use cases for the approval process. 8%
Desktop and Mobile Administration - Describe the capabilities of the Salesforce Mobile App.

- Describe the installation and synchronization options of Salesforce Lightning for Outlook. 3%

AppExchange - Identify use cases for AppExchange applications. 2%

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QUESTION 1
Inline editing updates the field when

A. The field is saved/updated
B. When the record is saved/updated
C. When the return key is pressed
D. None of the above

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
If a company opts to use Custom Fiscal Years, they cannot use the standard forecasting option.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

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QUESTION 3
Which of the following are not standard objects?

A. Opportunities
B. Solutions
C. Job Applicants
D. Accounts
E. Campaigns

Answer: C

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QUESTION 4
Which of the following are part of the Service Cloud offering?

A. Opportunities
B. Knowledge
C. Entitlements
D. Campaigns
E. Quotes

Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 5
Locale settings control how users view date formats, time formats and number formats.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A
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