Thursday, December 26, 2019

1z0-815 Java SE 11 Programmer I Exam

Exam Details
Exam Title: Java SE 11 Programmer I
Exam Number: 1Z0-815
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format:
Multiple Choice Duration: 180 Minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Passing Score: 63 %
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against Java 11.

Associated Certification Paths
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Certified Professional: Java SE 11 Developer

Take Recommended Training Courses
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Java SE: Programming I Ed 2
Java Programming Learning Subscription
Core Java Learning Subscription
Unlimited Product Learning Subscription

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Java SE 11 Certification Overview and Sample Questions
Practice Exams: Oracle Authorized practice exam from Kaplan IT Training: 1Z0-815 Oracle Java SE 11 Programmer I OCP

Review Exam Topics
Understanding Java Technology and environment

Describe Java Technology and the Java development
Identify key features of the Java language

Working With Java Primitive Data Types and String APIs

Declare and initialize variables (including casting and promoting primitive data types)
Identify the scope of variables
Use local variable type inference
Create and manipulate Strings
Manipulate data using the StringBuilder class and its methods

Working with Java Arrays
Declare, instantiate, initialize and use a one-dimensional array
Declare, instantiate, initialize and use a two-dimensional array

Creating and Using Methods
Create methods and constructors with arguments and return values
Create and invoke overloaded methods
Apply the static keyword to methods and fields

Reusing Implementations Through Inheritance
Create and use subclasses and superclasses
Create and extend abstract classes
Enable polymorphism by overriding methods
Utilize polymorphism to cast and call methods, differentiating object type versus reference type
Distinguish overloading, overriding, and hiding

Handling Exceptions
Describe the advantages of Exception handling and differentiate among checked, unchecked exceptions, and Errors
Create try-catch blocks and determine how exceptions alter program flow
Create and invoke a method that throws an exception

Creating a Simple Java Program
Create an executable Java program with a main class
Compile and run a Java program from the command line
Create and import packages

Using Operators and Decision Constructs
Use Java operators including the use of parentheses to override operator precedence
Use Java control statements including if, if/else, switch
Create and use do/while, while, for and for each loops, including nested loops, use break and continue statements

Describing and Using Objects and Classes
Declare and instantiate Java objects, and explain objects' lifecycles (including creation, dereferencing by reassignment, and garbage collection)
Define the structure of a Java class
Read or write to object fields

Applying Encapsulation
Apply access modifiers
Apply encapsulation principles to a class

Programming Abstractly Through Interfaces
Create and implement interfaces
Distinguish class inheritance from interface inheritance including abstract classes
Declare and use List and ArrayList instances
Understanding Lambda Expressions

Understanding Modules
Describe the Modular JDK
Declare modules and enable access between modules
Describe how a modular project is compiled and run

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about Java modules? (Choose two.)

A. Modular jars loaded from --module-path are automatic modules.
B. Any named module can directly access all classes in an automatic module.
C. Classes found in –classpath are part of an unnamed module.
D. Modular jars loaded from –classpath are automatic modules.
E. If a packaged is defined in both the name module and the unnamed module, then the package in the unnamed module is ignored.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which describes a characteristic of setting up the Java development environment?

A. Setting up the Java development environment requires that you also install the JRE.
B. The Java development environment is set up for all operating systems by default.
C. You set up the Java development environment for a specific operating system when you install the JDK.
D. Setting up the Java development environment occurs when you install an IDE before the JDK.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are correct about try blocks? (Choose two.)

A. A try block can have more than one catch block.
B. A finally block in a try-with-resources statement executes before the resources declared are closed.
C. A finally block must be immediately placed after the try and catch blocks.
D. A try block must have a catch block and a finally block.
E. catch blocks must be ordered from generic to specific exception types.

Correct Answer: A,E

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are correct about modules in Java? (Choose two.)

A. java.base exports all of the Java platforms core packages.
B. module-info.java can be placed in any folder inside module-path.
C. A module must be declared in module-info.java file.
D. module-info.java cannot be empty.
E. By default, modules can access each other as long as they run in the same folder.

Correct Answer: C,E

QUESTION 5
Which is the correct order of possible statements in the structure of a Java class file?

A. class, package, import
B. package, import, class
C. import, package, class
D. package, class, import
E. import, class, package

Correct Answer: D


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Friday, December 20, 2019

401-01 Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Application Performance Management Exam

Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional – Application Performance Management:
While there are no set requirements prior to taking the exam, candidates who have passed the RCSA-APM exam, and also have at least six months of hands-on experience with Riverbed products, have a significantly higher chance of receiving the accreditation.

Riverbed Certification Program Benefits
Establishes your credibility as an expert in Riverbed products and services, visibility solutions, WAN optimization, and application acceleration.
Helps improve your career advancement potential.
Entitles you to use the Riverbed certification logo on your business card.
Enables Riverbed Certified Solutions Professionals (RCSPs) to join Riverbed’s RCSP Members only Splash community group.

Become a Digital Performance Professional
Riverbed is redefining how you think about your career in technology. The Riverbed Certified Performance Engineering (RCPE) program is the first of its kind training curriculum that teaches career-based skills and capabilities in digital performance.

RCPE focuses on capabilities and use-cases in digital performance to enable significant business results and outcomes.
Learn with a product agnostic approach on the principles and solutions of performance engineering and management.
Training is delivered through a combination of eLearning, instructor- led classes, hands-on labs and practicums that replicate real-world scenarios.

Capabilities to Increase Business Value
Riverbed enables you take advantage of long term and successful performance management strategies that solve the challenges of the modern day enterprise. With RCPE, you can establish yourself as a digital performance professional and deliver high-performing applications, networks and infrastructure to improve business value.

QUESTION 1
When sizing an AppResponse appliance these factors are considered. (Choose two)

A. Physical distance between servers and a datacenter
B. Amount of bandwidth to be monitored
C. Type of applications used in production
D. Packet storage that is needed

Answer: B,C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 2
In SteelCentral Portal, default dashboards have these features. (Choose two)

A. Created with the Application Model Builder
B. Created with the Dashboard Wizard
C. Automatically created after connecting one of the data sources
D. Automatically shared

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 3
In AppInternals, if ‘Collect End-User Experience Data’ is selected, extra configuration is required when the application:

A. Uses gzip content encoding.
B. Is authenticated with SSO.
C. Is accessed via HTTPS.
D. Has users on Google Chrome.

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:


QUESTION 4
In AppInternals, end user browser response time data is sent to the analysis server using:

A. Probes
B. Agents
C. Beacons
D. Subagents

Answer: D
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Friday, December 13, 2019

NSE7_ATP-2.5 Fortinet NSE 7 - Advances Threat Protection 2.5 Exam

Description
The NSE 7 Network Security Architect designation recognizes your advanced skills ans ability to deploy, administer, and troubleshoot Fortinet security solutions.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 7 Certification

We recommend this course for network and security professionals who are involved in the design, administration, and support of security infrastructures using Fortinet solutions.

Program Requirements


You must successfully pass at least one of the NSE 7 exams:

Fortinet NSE 7 - Advanced Threat Protection
Fortinet NSE 7 - Enterprise Firewall
Fortinet NSE 7 - Secure Access
Fortinet NSE 7 - Cloud Security

To prepare for the certification exams, we recommend that you take the NSE 7 product courses. The courses are optional.

About the NSE 7 Exams

These exams are available at a Pearson VUE test centers.
Fortinet NSE 7 - Enterprise Firewall 6.0

Exam series: NSE7_EFW-6.0
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 6.0
Status: Registration ends March 31, 2020

Fortinet NSE 7 - Enterprise Firewall 6.2
Exam series: NSE7_EFW-6.2
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 6.2
Status: Available

Fortinet NSE 7 - Secure Access 6.0

Exam series: NSE7_SAC-6.0
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 6.0
Status: Available

Fortinet NSE 7 - Cloud Security 6.0
Exam series: NSE7_CDS-6.0
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 6.0
Status: Available

Fortinet NSE 7 - Advances Threat Proctection 2.5
Exam series: NSE7_ATP-2.5
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiSandbox 2.5
Status: Available

Certification
To obtain certification, you must pass at least one Fortinet NSE 7 exam.
NSE 7 certification is valid for two years from the date of completion.

About NSE Certification Exams
Available worldwide at: Pearson VUE testcenter
Scoring method: Answers must be 100% correct for credit. No partial credit is given. There are no deductions for incorrect answers.
Type of questions: Multiple choice and multiple select
Time required between attempts: 15 days
Transcript and certificate: Your Fortinet NSE Institute transcript is updated withing five business days after you pass the exam. After that, you will be able to download a printable certificate from the NSE Institute.

QUESTION 1
Which samples can FortiClient submit to FortiSandbox for analysis? (Choose two.)

A. Downloads from emails
B. URLs from web requests
C. Command and control traffic
D. Files from removable storage

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
At which stage of the kill chain will an attacker use tools, such as nmap, ARIN, and banner grabbing, on the targeted organization’s network?

A. Exploitation
B. Reconnaissance
C. Lateral movement
D. Weaponization

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
FortiGate root VDOM is authorized and configured to send suspicious files to FortiSandbox for inspection. The
administrator creates a new VDOM, and then generates some traffic so that the new VDOM sends a file to FortiSandbox for the first time.
Which of the following is true regarding this scenario?

A. FortiSandbox will accept the file, but not inspect it until the administrator manually configures the new VDOM on FortiSandbox.
B. FortiSandbox will inspect all files based on the root VDOM authorization state and configuration.
C. FortiSandbox will accept the file, but not inspect it until the administrator manually authorizes the new VDOM on FortiSandbox.
D. By default, FortiSandbox will autoauthorize the new VDOM, and inspect files as they are received.

Answer: B
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Wednesday, December 11, 2019

NSE7_EFW-6.0 Fortinet NSE 7 - Enterprise Firewall 6.0 Exam

QUESTION 1
Which of the following tasks are automated using the Install Wizard on FortiManager? (Choose two.)

A. Install configuration changes to managed devices.
B. Preview pending configuration changes for managed devices.
C. Import policy packages from managed devices.
D. Add devices to FortiManager.
E. Import interface mappings from managed devices

Answer: A,B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
What conditions are required for two FortiGate devices to form an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)

A. OSPF IP MTUs match.
B. OSPF costs match.
C. OSPF peer IDs match.
D. IP addresses are in the same subnet.
E. Hello and dead intervals match.

Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 3
An administrator has configured two FortiGate devices for an HA cluster. While testing the HA failover, the
administrator noticed that some of the switches in the network continue to send traffic to the former primary
unit. The administrator decides to enable the setting link-failed-signal to fix the problem. Which one of
the following statements about this command is true?

A. Forces the former primary device to shut down all its non-heartbeat interfaces for one second while the
failover occurs.
B. Sends an ARP packet to all connected devices, indicating that the HA virtual MAC address is reachable
through a new master after a failover.
C. Disables all the non-heartbeat interfaces in all the HA members for two seconds after a failover.
D. Sends a link failed signal to all connected devices.

Answer: A
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Monday, December 9, 2019

PL-900 Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals (beta) Exam

Candidates for this exam are users who aspire to improve productivity by automating business processes, analyzing data to produce business insights, and acting more effectively by creating simple app experiences.

This exam covers the following: Describe the Power Platform components: Power Apps, Power BI, Microsoft Flow, Common Data Service (CDS), connectors, and AI builder; describe cross-cloud scenarios with representation across Microsoft 365, Dynamics 365, Microsoft Azure, and third-party services; identify benefits and capabilities of Power Platform; identify the basic functionality and business value Power Platform components; implement simple solutions with Microsoft Flow, Power BI, and AI Builder; and create a basic app in a no-code environment.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified Power Platform Fundamentals
Languages: English
Retirement date: none

This exam measures your ability to understand the business value of Power Platform; understand the core components of Power Platform; demonstrate the business value of Power BI; and demonstrate the business value of Microsoft Flow.

Understand the business value of Power Platform (20-25%)

Describe the value of Power Platform applications May include but is not limited to:

• analyze data by using Power BI
• act with Power Apps
• build solutions that use Common Data Service (CDS)
• automate with Microsoft Flow
• interoperate with external systems and data

Describe the value of connecting business solutions May include but is not limited to describing the benefits of connecting:

• Dynamics 365
• Microsoft 365
• Microsoft Azure
• third-party services and apps

Understand Power Platform administration and security May include but is not limited to:
• understand how Power Platform implements security
• understand Power Platform as a service
• describe how to manage apps and users
• describe admin centers • understand how the platform supports compliance Understand the Core Components of Power Platform (25-30%)

Understand Common Data Services May include but is not limited to:
• user experience vs unique job role using Power Apps
• identify entities, fields, and relationships
• describe environments
• describe use cases and limitations of Business process flows
• describe use cases and limitations of business rules
• describe the Common Data Model (CDM)
• identify common standard entities

Understand Connectors May include but is not limited to:
• describe uses for and types of triggers
• describe actions
• describe connectors
• identify use cases for custom connectors

Understand AI Builder May include but is not limited to:
• identify the business value of AI Builder
• describe models • consumption by the Power Platform Demonstrate the business value of Power BI (15-20%)

Understand common components in Power BI May include but is not limited to:
• identify and describe uses for visualization controls
• describe types of filters
• describe Tabs
• custom visuals
• compare and contrast dashboards and workspaces
• compare and contrast Power BI Desktop and Power BI Service

Connect to and consume data May include but is not limited to:
• combine multiple data sources
• clean and transform data
• describe and implement aggregate functions
• identify available types of data sources
• describe and consume shared datasets and template apps

Build a basic dashboard using Power BI May include but is not limited to:
• design a Power BI dashboard
• design data layout and mapping • publish and share reports and dashboards Demonstrate the business value of Power Apps (15-20%)

Understand common components in Power Apps

May include but is not limited to:

• describe canvas apps
• describe model-driven apps
• identify and describe controls
• understand uses for templates
• understand use cases for formulas

Build a basic canvas app May include but is not limited to:
• connect to data
• use controls to design the user experience
• describe the customer journey
• publish and share an app

Understand Power Apps portals May include but is not limited to:
• describe use case for and the business value of portals
• describe how to extend CDS data, use controls, and embed Power BI objects

Demonstrate the business value of Microsoft Flow (15-20%)

Understand the common components of Microsoft Flow May include but is not limited to describing the use cases for Flow components:
• flow types
• templates
• connectors
• triggers
• conditions
• expressions
• approvals

Build a basic flow May include but is not limited to:

• create a business process flow
• implement a Microsoft Flow template
• modify a flow
• run a flow
• export a flow to Logic Apps


QUESTION 1
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The company uses a browser-based app named Sales Hub.
You need ensure that users can access data from mobile devices.
Which app should users install?

A. Dynamics 365 Remote Assist
B. Dynamics 365 Finance
C. Dynamics 365 Business Central
D. Dynamics 365 for Phones

Answer: D

Section: Understand the business value of Power Platform
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
Use the Dynamics 365 for phones and Dynamics 365 for tablets apps for your sales, customer service, field
service, and other tasks when you're on the go. With one download from your app store, you’ll automatically
have access to all the apps you need for your role. You will see apps with the new Unified Interface on your
mobile device.
Reference:



QUESTION 2
You are a customer service manager.
You need to implement a Power Apps portal that allows customers to submit cases.
Which type of data source is used?

A. Dynamics 365 Connector
B. Microsoft SharePoint
C. Microsoft Azure Storage
D. Common Data Service

Answer: B
Section: Understand the business value of Power Platform
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
SharePoint can be set up to setup customer feedback.
Note: The PowerApp uses Finance and Operations connector to grab sales order information and SharePoint
connector to connect and write the data to SharePoint list.
Reference:



QUESTION 3
A distribution company has multiple warehouses.
Tax rates charged on sales orders need to be calculated based on locality and region.
You need to recommend a cost-effective solution that can be implemented quickly.
What should you recommend?

A. Check AppSource for a tax add-on.
B. Create alerts in Dynamics 365 Finance for tax table changes.
C. Implement the Common Data Model.
D. Run a Power BI report.
E. Write scripts and code tax updates.

Answer: B
Section: Understand the business value of Power Platform
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:





QUESTION
4
You need to implement Microsoft Business Applications along with the Microsoft Power platform.
Which three Microsoft products are part of the Power platform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Microsoft Power Apps
B. Azure Active Directory
C. Microsoft Flow
D. Azure Machine Learning
E. Microsoft Power BI

Answer: A,C,E
Section: Understand the business value of Power Platform
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The Power Platform uses PowerApps, Power BI, and Power Automate (previously named Flow) to customize,
extend, and build all the apps you need for your business and unlock the potential of Office 365 and Dynamics 365.
Reference:



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DES-4421 Specialist - Implementation Engineer, PowerEdge MX Modular Exam

Certification Overview
This certification validates the ability to perform intermediate skill level tasks in installing, configuring, maintaining and troubleshooting Dell EMC PowerEdge MX Server products.

Certification Requirements
To complete the requirements for this certification you must:

1. Achieve one of the following Associate level certifications*
• Associate - PowerEdge Version 1.0
• Dell Certified Associate – PowerEdge
• Dell Certified Professional – PowerEdge
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, PowerEdge Version 1.0
• CompTIA Server+

2. Pass the following Implementation Exam
• DES-4421 Specialist - Implementation Engineer, PowerEdge MX Modular Exam

Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of April 26, 2019.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements. *Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the latest information and for other options to meet the
Associate level requirement.

Overview
This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist - Implementation Engineer, PowerEdge MX Modular track.
This exam focuses on installing, configuring and managing the Dell EMC PowerEdge MX server products.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the certification exam.

Products
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited to:
• PowerEdge MX Platform Server Components
• OpenManage Enterprise Modular (OME-E)
• PowerEdge MX Platform Networking Components

Exam Topics
Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:

MX-Series Introduction (10%)
• Describe MX7000 hardware chassis components and numbering schemes
• Describe MX7000 compute and storage sled components
• P Describe MX5016s storage sleds and configurations

MX7000 Management (38%)
• Describe the MX Chassis Management Architecture and multi-chassis management groups
• Describe key features of OME-M and how OME-M differs from OME
• Describe storage sled management, Fabric C, mapping drives, and drive/enclosure assigned configuration
• Describe use of slot profiles, daisy chains, simplification, and consolidation, logs, and the iDRAC Service Module
• Describe how to perform firmware updates
• Describe use of key features of iDRAC, touching on considerations specific to MX Modular, including resetting iDRAC
• Explain usage and benefits of the Lifecycle Controller
• Describe nature, use, and benefits of Redfish; topics may include operational model, tree structure, RESTful API, available commands

MX Installation and Configuration (18%)
Explain the power-on process for the chassis and sleds
• Explain the initial setup on an MX7000 including use of the left rack ear LCD panel
• Describe the concepts for initial chassis configuration using the Chassis Deployment Wizard
• Describe use of compute sleds, including location and supported operating systems

MX Networking (20%)

• List minimum networking requirements based on capabilities of various MX7000 models
• Describe the supported fabrics for Ethernet switches, taking into consideration various modes
• Describe the differences between Full Switch mode and SmartFabric Mode
• Describe how to perform an initial out-of-box setup using OME-M and OS 10 CLI
• Describe the administrative functions available when two or more chassis are interconnected
• Describe switching features on MX switches in Smart Fabric mode using OME-M

MX Troubleshooting (14%)
• Describe how to use OME-M to collect logs, review status and alerts, and check system health
• Describe troubleshooting procedures to resolve hardware issues

The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of the total question set across the exam.

QUESTION 1
A new administrator has just taken over an MX7000 Multi-Chassis Management Group and two-racks of
PowerEdge servers. The previous administrator no longer works at the company and is not available. No one
knows the password for the OME-M interface and the default password is not working.
What must be used to reset the password?

A. iDRAC for one of the compute sleds.
B. Left ear control panel.
C. RACADM using a serial connection
D. Management Module jumpers

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A server sled has a single mezzanine card installed in the correctly supported slot.
To which IOM fabric(s) does the sled have access?

A. Fabric A1 and Fabric A2
B. Fabric A1 only
C. Either Fabric A or Fabric B, depending on the configuration set in OME-M
D. Fabric A1 and Fabric B1

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
When performing “A1 the Box” management, what must be done to successfully connect to the Management Module?

A. Configure PuTTY for a serial connection
B. Change the baud rate to 128000
C. Connect cables to the KVM
D. Attach standard A-to-A USB cable to a laptop

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the number of server-facing ports and the bandwidth of each port on the MXG610s? (Choose two.)

A. 8x 16 Gbps
B. 16x 32 Gbps
C. 16x 16 Gbps
D. 8x 32 Gbps

Answer: B,C

QUESTION 5
What can be used as the firmware update source for OME-M within an MX chassis?

A. Server Update Utility Baseline from a Catalog
B. Server Update Utility System Live Image (SLI)
C. Dell Update package System Live Image (SLI)
D. Dell Update Package Baseline from a Catalog

Answer: D
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Thursday, November 28, 2019

HPE0-J50 Integrating Protected HPE Storage Solutions Exam

Exam ID HPE0-J50
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 45 minutes
Exam length 70 questions
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

Integrating protected HPE Storage Solutions, Rev. 17.41

Register for this Exam
You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.

No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these comments as part of our continuous improvement process.

Exam description
This exam tests your ability to deploy, integrate, troubleshoot, and manage storage solutions that meet your customer’s business requirements across physical, virtual, and cloud infrastructure, including workloads for information serving, protection, retention and analytics.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are presales IT professionals with a minimum of one to three years experience interpreting customer requirements to install, configure and manage HPE storage solutions. Students should be prepared to use critical thinking skills to optimize and resolve storage solution integration issues.

Exam contents

This exam has 70 questions. Here are types of questions to expect:
Multiple choice (multiple responses), scenario based
Multiple choice (single response), scenario based
Matching
Multiple choice (multiple responses)
Multiple choice (single response)
Pull down menu selection
Point and click

Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:

Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

9% Plan and design HPE storage solutions
Assess customer requirements
Perform design validation

43% Install, configure, and set up HPE storage solutions
Plan a solution installation based on a proposed design
Inspect for proper power, rack space, and cooling
Install designed solution following best practices
Prepare solution for customer use
Configure storage according to the solution design
Perform tests to verify the solution works as designed
Hand over installed HPE solution to the customer

30% Manage, Monitor, and Maintain Storage Solutions
Establish a performance baseline from customer application requirements
Test performance and collect metrics on configurations and solutions based on customer SLA requirements
Use management tools to monitor the customer environment.
Deploy and configure additional software tools in customer environment
Optimize the solution according to changing workloads and customer requirements
Determine whether software/firmware versions are current and supported in customer environment
Perform updates and lifecycle management operations on systems and solutions in customer environment
Perform health checks on solution deployments in customer environments
Perform required knowledge transfers and hands-on training

14% Troubleshoot HPE Storage Solutions
Identify system issues and failures
Create and implement an action plan to resolve the issue/failure
Implement preventive measures

4% Identify upsell opportunities
Discover gaps in existing customer environment
Determine the cause of the gaps in the customer environment
Refer any opportunities to the appropriate contact

QUESTION 2
A customer with an HPE 3PAR 8200 unit has concerns about tracking missing updates and where to find the
information on when upgrades were done in the past. With previous storage systems the customer ran out of
storage before knowing that they needed to order more storage.
What can the integrator do to help the customer with these concerns?

A. Use the 3PAR Service Processor for Insplore event notification.
B. Enable StoreFront Remote integration.
C. Schedule SSMC Overview reports for the customer.
D. Link the 3PAR Service Agreement ID to customer`s HPE passport account for storage reporting.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A customer has HPE Data Protector and a StoreOnce VSA at a remote site that must replicate to the corporate
data center StoreOnce backup device.
What considerations must be taken into account to allow for Catalyst replication?

A. Data Protector Catalyst replication will rehydrate the data on the StoreOnce VSA then write to the data
center StoreOnce.
B. Data Protector will write 2 backups: one to the StoreOnce VSA, the other to StoreOnce at the data center.
C. Data Protector Catalyst replication requires gateways to both sites to use Object copy.
D. Data Protector Catalyst replication is configured through the replication license on the StoreOnce VSA.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A storage integrator is validating an HPE 3PAR StoreServ implementation. The integrator created a volume in
the HPE 3PAR StoreServ Management Console (SSMC) and needs to verify read/write access from a Linux
operating system.
Which steps are part of the verification process? (Choose two.)

A. Select Hosts under the Servers menu section, and click Create server.
B. Select the volume in the Virtual Volumes section. and click Map Volume in the Actions menu.
C. Select the host in the Servers section, and click Add permission in the Actions menu.
D. Select the volume in the Virtual Volumes section, and click Export in the Actions menu.
E. Select Hosts in the Block Persona menu section, and click Create host.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 8
A system engineer installed HPE Insight Remote Support for an HPE MSA 2042 storage system at a
customers site. The engineer wants to integrate the system in HPE Insight Online to monitor it remotely.
Which information does the engineer need from the customer to do the integration, using the Insight Remote
Support GUI with HPE Insight Online? (Choose two.)

A. HPE Passport ID
B. Product number of MSA 2042
C. Service Agreement ID (SAID)
D. HPE Passport password
E. Serial number of MSA 2042

Answer: B,E

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EADA105 ArcGIS Desktop Associate 10.5 Exam

Exam Details
Number of questions: 80
Certification code: EADA105
Published date: June 2017
Exam state: Available to public

About this Certification
The ArcGIS Desktop Associate exam tests the candidate's experience applying ArcGIS concepts and processes to workflows. Candidates should demonstrate proficiency when using ArcGIS to visualize, manage, and analyze geospatial data. Qualified candidates should have two or more years of applied experience, and should be proficient in best practices and uses of Esri's ArcGIS technologies.

QUALIFICATIONS
A qualified candidate should be able to perform the following tasks:
• Apply advanced map visualization (quantitative and qualitative) and cartographic methods and techniques
• Construct a map using available datasets and services
• Create new spatial datasets from analysis of existing datasets
• Work with layer properties and tables, and apply editing workflows
• Describe the basic types of geographic data
• Select the datasets necessary to perform a specific analysis
• Author and share content online
• Share data through layer and map packages
• Convert data from different formats
• Evaluate the suitability of a dataset
• Use an existing model or script
• Manipulate data between different projections
• Apply established workflows to correct issues with projections and transformations in ArcGIS Desktop
• Manipulate time-enabled data
• Enable and use editor tracking
• Author Python expressions from a list of available functions
• Publish hosted layers
• Share content to apps across the ArcGIS Platform
• Create a model for a repeatable process
• Use ArcGIS Pro tasks
• Use ArcGIS Online maps and apps

A qualified candidate should be familiar with the following tools:
• ArcGIS Platform components
• ArcGIS Desktop (ArcCatalog 10.5, ArcMap 10.5 and ArcGIS Pro 1.4)
• ArcGIS Spatial Analyst extension
• ArcGIS Network Analyst extension
• ArcGIS 3D Analyst extension
• ArcGIS Enterprise 10.5
• ArcGIS Online
• Collector for ArcGIS

A qualified candidate should NOT be expected to perform the following tasks:
• Administer a database
• Administer ArcGIS Enterprise
• Author ArcGIS Pro tasks
• Create advanced database structures
• Troubleshoot computer/network systems upon which ArcGIS Desktop is implemented
• Python programming of each skill. Specific preparation resources are available to assist with refreshing in areas where any knowledge gaps are found. Data Management
• Compare and contrast various types of vector and raster datasets supported in ArcGIS
• Choose and apply an appropriate coordinate system to preserve the desired spatial properties
• Given a scenario, determine how to convert and load data into a geodatabase
• Apply spatial and attribute data validation
• Given a scenario, determine which geodatabase type to use
• Given a scenario, determine how ArcGIS platform components are used to manage data
• Given a scenario, determine the appropriate existing geodatabase elements to use
• Manage raster data
• Manage tables
• Manage vector data
• Determine how to maintain item metadata Data Manipulation
• Use the editing workflow to create, modify, and delete 2D and 3D features
• Resolve the root cause of a data alignment problem
• Given a scenario, determine appropriate loading process, tools, and environment for loading data into a feature class or table
• For a given scenario, apply a SQL query
• Determine how to repair a broken data source
• Determine how to evaluate and repair data Visualization
• Identify how to control the coordinate system and geographic transformation in ArcGIS Desktop
• Manage layer properties
• Determine how to visualize temporal, ranged, or 3D data Sharing
• Identify how to export data and maps to different formats
• Choose how to share content across the ArcGIS Platform
• Identify the purpose for metadata and properties required for sharing
• Determine how to create and manage map layouts and map book Analysis and Geoprocessing
• Compare the properties of relates, relationship classes, joins, and spatial joins
• Given a scenario, determine the appropriate geoprocessing tool to use
• Given a complex workflow, use ArcGIS Pro tasks, batch processing or models
• Select an appropriate coordinate system for a given analysis
• Identify analysis tools available from ArcGIS Online
• Identify ArcGIS Enterprise portal-based analysis services
• Apply raster functions for raster and image processing

A qualified candidate should be familiar with the following software:
• ArcGIS Desktop (ArcCatalog 10.5, ArcMap 10.5 and ArcGIS Pro 1.4)
• ArcGIS Spatial Analyst
• ArcGIS Network Analyst
• ArcGIS 3D Analyst
• ArcGIS Enterprise 10.5
• ArcGIS Online
• Collector for ArcGIS

PREPARATION RESOURCES
The following training resources are available to help you prepare for your exam but are not required.
Please utilize this list of preparation resources with the list of “skills measured” topics so you can identify appropriate training options for any possible knowledge gaps.
Please note that completing the recommended training courses does not guarantee that you will achieve the requirements for a specific certification exam.

Learning Plan

Esri ArcGIS Desktop Assiciate Certification 10.5
Books from Esri Press
Getting to Know ArcGIS, Fourth Edition
Lining Up Data in ArcGIS: A Guide to Map Projections, Second Edition
Getting to Know ArcGIS Pro
Other Online Resources
ArcGIS Desktop: Documentation


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Tuesday, November 26, 2019

HPE2-K42 Designing HPE Nimble Solutions Exam

Exam ID HPE2-K42
Exam type Web based
Exam duration 1 hour
Exam length 40 questions
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages Japanese, English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:

Designing HPE Nimble Solutions, Rev. 18.21

Additional study materials

HPE Product Certified – Nimble Solutions [2018] (HPE2-K42) Study Guide

Register for this Exam
You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.

This exam may contain beta test items for experimental purposes.

Exam description
This exam is designed to test candidate knowledge of recommending, explaining, and using HPE Nimble storage solutions. It covers the HPE Nimble hardware and software, initial configuration, and HPE Nimble storage volumes, snapshots, and replication.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates of this exam are IT, facilities, or data center professionals who work in and around the data center and who have the responsibility to achieve and improve the ability and manageability of the data center. Typical candidate job roles include but are not limited to Pre-sales Architects, Pre-sales Engineers, Enterprise Architects, Solutions Engineers, and Technology Engineers.

Exam contents
This exam has 40 questions. Here are types of questions to expect:

Multiple choice (multiple responses), scenario based
Multiple choice (multiple responses)

Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides, practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure you will pass the exam.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives

7% Introduction to Nimble Solutions
Identify Nimble technologies
Describe Nimble OS features
Describe Nimble Cloud Volume Technology
Discuss licensing

13% AF-Series Introduction
Describe the AF-Series hardware.
Explain Scale-to-Fit with the AF-Series.

9% CS-Series Introduction
Describe the CSx000 hardware.
Explain Scale-to-Fit with the CSx000
Describe Nimble Hardware

17% NimbleOS Architecture
Describe the AF-Series write operations.
Describe the AF-Series read operations.
Describe the HFx000 write operations.
Describe the HFx000 read operations.

3% NimbleOS WebUI Introduction
Explain how to access and navigate the NimbleOS WebUI.
Explain user administration.

3% Introduction to Customer Support and InfoSight
Discuss the InfoSight Customer portal.
Describe Support coverage and logistics.

10% Array initialization and Setup
Explain an array initialization process.
Explain an array configuration process.
Describe port and firewall considerations.

17% Working with Nimble Storage Volumes
Describe basic volume concepts.

8% Introduction to Nimble Storage Snapshots
Describe how Nimble snapshots work.
Explain snapshot scheduling.
Describe need to add RPO, RTO, and change rate definitions.
Explain recovering from a snapshot by using zero copy clones

13% Introduction to Nimble Storage Replication
Describe basic replication concepts.
Explain SmartReplicate Disaster Recovery.



QUESTION 1
Which prerequisites must be fulfilled before starting the array initialization? (Choose three)

A. HPE Nimble Windows Toolkit installed on a server/laptop.
B. Ensure your laptop/server IP has a static IP address configured on the same subnet as the array management interface.
C. Array updated to the latest firmware.
D. All switch configurations done like flow control and spanning tree.
E. Array registered in InfoSight based on the serial number.
F. HPE Service Processor deployed

Answer: A,B,C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
How is SmartReplicate licensed?

A. per array
B. free of charge
C. per target
D. based on capacity (per 1TB)

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Array-Performance-and-Data/Nimble-SmartSnap-SmartReplicationvs-
EMC-RecoveryPoint/td-p/6983058#.XBCRDsRR2kw

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of banks in an AF-Series array?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
What is a valid QoS performance setting?

A. latency threshold
B. IOPS minimum
C. IOPS limit
D. MB/s minimum

Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
QoS-Limit allows a user to limit either the IOP or MB/s performance of a specific workload. Having the ability
to limit both IOPS and MBs is important as quite often any single workload will have different peaks and
troughs during the operational day. For instance, an OLTP workload maybe very latency sensitive to small
block updates during the working day when rows and tables are frequently being accessed or updated (this will
tend to be very IOP/latency sensitive) yet in the evening the same database maybe receiving feeds from other
systems (or providing bulk updates/analysis or index rebuilds), the same application will cease to be IOP
sensitive and will now be bandwidth (MBs) sensitive. In NimbleOS4 a user can limit a workload by either IOPS
or MBs and also specify limits to both IOPS and MBs. If either limit is reached then the volume will be
restricted accordingly.

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/NimbleOS-4-Quality-of-Service-QoSLimits/
ba-p/6986455#.XBEAvMRR2kw

QUESTION 5
What are primary HPE Nimble SmartReplicate components? (Choose three.)

A. partner
B. snapshot schedule
C. replication group
D. sync partner
E. throttle

Answer: A,BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Thursday, November 21, 2019

1D0-525 CIW E-Commerce Designer

Certification Name: CIW E-Commerce Specialist
Exam ID: 1D0-525
Number of Questions: 72
Passing Score: 68%
Time Limit: 75 minutes
Course Name: E-Commerce Strategies and Practices

To stand out as an increasingly valuable member of a Web or marketing team, you need a working knowledge of e-commerce standards. The E-Commerce Strategies and Practices course is for the individual who already understands the foundations of Web technologies and wants to become proficient in e-commerce practices and site design.
Certification

The CIW E-Commerce Strategies and Practices course prepares candidates to take the CIW E-Commerce Specialist exam, which, if passed, earns the individual the CIW E-Commerce Specialist certification. Candidates who also pass the CIW Web Design Specialist exam earn the advanced CIW Web Design Professional certification.

Average Salary - $66,665 for E-Commerce Specialist
The 2015 annual mean salary of an IT professional who has been awarded the CIW E-Commerce Specialist certification is $66,665. This salary was calculated based on the 14,000+ IT professionals who responded to the 2016 IT Skills and Salary survey that was conducted by Global Knowledge in September of 2015.

Target Audience
Web designers
Internet consultants
IT professionals
Marketing professionals
Web and graphic artists
Business professionals

Skills Taught (Refer to course description for more details)
E-commerce site development, including ways to conduct business online and manage the technical issues associated with constructing an e-commerce Web site
E-commerce technology and security, including e-commerce technologies at various levels of sophistication, Customer Relationship Management (CRM) software, and practices for securing your online transactions as well as your customers' personal information
E-commerce business, marketing and legal issues, including Web marketing strategies, online product promotion, and legal topics such as taxation and international shipping

QUESTION 1
Placing an institutional banner ad on a site that targets a specific market can result in:

A. a higher clickthrough rate.
B. increased banner exchange.
C. higher search-engine ranking.
D. better banner ad positioning on the site.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an example of just-in-time (JIT) delivery?

A. Obtaining the product only after supplies have run out
B. Obtaining and developing items as customers demand the product
C. Storing the product in parts until customers demand the assembled product
D. Warehousing large amounts of assembled goods as customers demand the product

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
None of your customers can access SSL-protected pages on your new e-commerce site. Which of the following steps will resolve this problem?

A. Ask customers to reboot their computers.
B. Open TCP port 443 on the company firewall.
C. Open TCP port 8080 on the company firewall.
D. Ask your customers to upgrade their Web browsers.

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What step would be appropriate before launching an e-commerce site with a newly installed payment gateway?

A. Contact the issuing bank to verify connections.
B. Contact the acquiring bank to verify connections.
C. Test the system using various payment methods.
D. Register the gateway with accepted credit card issuers.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An international online auction company wants to use a payment service that supports payment processing and is limited to auction purchases only. Which of the following would best meet the company's needs?

A. eBay
B. BidPay
C. PayPal
D. AuctionPay

Answer: B
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Saturday, November 16, 2019

5V0-32.19 VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam 2019 Exam

Exam Details
The VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam (5V0-32.19) which leads to VMware Specialist – Cloud Provider 2019 badge is a 40-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given a time of 60 minutes.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate should have one or more years of experience with VMware vCloud Director; more than a year of hands-on experience with VMware Cloud Provider Platform; and a year
or more experience in storage and networking. It is strongly recommended that this person also have successfully completed the VCD Fundamentals training and have a current VCP in CMA, DCV, DTM
or NV.

Exam Sections
The exam sections and objectives outline the range of content that can be included in the exam.
Some objectives may not have associated questions.

Section 1 – VMware vCloud Director Architecture and Technologies
Objective 1.1 – Define vCloud Director terminologies
Objective 1.2 – Identify vCloud Director cell architecture and technologies
Objective 1.3 – Describe vCloud Director processes, services, and resource abstractions
Objective 1.4 – Describe vCloud Director networking and storage concepts
Objective 1.5 – Identify vCloud Director hardware and software requirements
Objective 1.6 – Identify vCloud Director support platforms

Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 – Define and explain Cloud Provider Pod usage
Objective 2.2 – Define and explain Cloud Provider Hub usage
Objective 2.3 – Define and explain vCloud Availability Cloud-to-Cloud usage
Objective 2.4 – Define and explain how to use VMware vCloud Usage Meter and Insight
Objective 2.5 – Define and explain VMware vCloud Director Extender usage
Objective 2.6 – Define and explain the Cloud Provider Platform

Section 3 – NOT APPLICABLE TO THIS EXAM

Section 4 – Configure and install VMware vCloud Director
Objective 4.1 – Implement strategies for vCloud Director, cell, database and NSX Manager
Objective 4.2 – Identify the system and network hardware and software requirements
Objective 4.3 – Define, apply, and troubleshoot vCloud Director network configuration
Objective 4.4 – Install and configure vCenter Single Sign On and SAML identity provider
Objective 4.5 – Install and configure vCloud Director and NSX Manager
Objective 4.6 – Configure an AMQP broker
Objective 4.7 – Identify database prerequisites
Objective 4.8 – Create and manage SSL certificates
Objective 4.9 – Install and configure vCloud Director Extender
Objective 4.10 – Install and configure load balancing for vCloud Director utilizing NSX

Section 5 and Section 6 – NOT APPLICABLE TO THIS EXAM

Section 7 – Administration and Operations of VMware vCloud Director
Objective 7.1 - Add resources to vCloud Director
Objective 7.2 – Create and manage cloud resources using vCloud Director
Objective 7.3 – Manage organizations in vCloud Director
Objective 7.4 – Create and manage vCloud Director user roles
Objective 7.5 – Manage catalogs using vCloud Director user interface
Objective 7.6 – Apply use cases for vCloud Director allocation models
Objective 7.7 – Compare tenant organization administration and provider administration
Objective 7.8 – Configure vAPP and virtual machines
Objective 7.9 – Manage catalogs using OVF tool
Objective 7.10 – Manage network administration and security
Objective 7.11 – Manage and configure storage policies
Objective 7.12 Upgrade vCloud Director environment

QUESTION 1
What are the two primary use cases of VMware vCloud Availability for vCloud Director solution set? (Choose two.)

A. orchestrate VMware Fault Tolerance for a vApp in a vCloud Director environment
B. create an L2 VPN tunnel between on-premises vCenter and a vCloud Director environment
C. activate self-service Disaster Recovery between vCloud Director environments
D. automate creation of vCloud Director cells for high availability purposes
E. provide Disaster Recovery between on-premises vCenter to a vCloud Director environment

Answer: C,E

QUESTION 2
A system administrator is adding new compute resources to an existing VMware vCloud Director installation. Which two types of compute resources can be consumed by VMware vCloud Director version 9.1 for the capacity expansion? (Choose two.)

A. VMware vSphere ESXi host with vCloud networking and security
B. Red Hat KVM host with Open Switch
C. VMware vSphere Resource Pools in a new vCenter Server with NSX
D. VMware Integrated OpenStack host group
E. VMware vSphere cluster in an already added vCenter Server

Answer: C,E

QUESTION 3
Which benefit does the VMware Cloud on AWS 1-node option in VMware Cloud Provider Hub provide?

A. no charge for running workloads for 30 days
B. smaller and cost-effective entry point, scale at 4+ nodes within 30 days
C. the ability to run VMware vCloud Director
D. the ability to run mission critical workloads for a tenant

Answer: B


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Wednesday, October 23, 2019

C1000-007 IBM Cloud Application Development v3

Number of questions: 61
Number of questions to pass: 39
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 50002201
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
An IBM Certified Advanced Application Developer - Cloud Platform technical professional understands advanced concepts essential to the development of cloud applications. They will have experience using the IBM Bluemix platform and application services. They have demonstrated understanding of hybrid cloud best practices and can build applications that span multiple cloud and/or on-premises environments. This individual is able to perform these tasks with little to no assistance from product documentation, support or peers.

Key Areas of Competency:
Hybrid cloud architecture and microservices best practices
Cloud application integration
Implementing security in hybrid cloud applications
Applying DevOps best practices to complex applications and hybrid cloud deployments

Required Knowledge:
Working knowledge of IBM Bluemix compute options
Experience developing applications using IBM Bluemix
Working knowledge of microservices architecture
Working knowledge of building applications in polyglot language scenarios
Working knowledge of data services available within IBM Bluemix
Understanding of integration models for hybrid cloud
Working knowledge of IBM Bluemix secure connectivity options
Working knowledge of API Connect and REST API integration model
Working knowledge of data integration and event integration models
Working knowledge of messaging services with MQ and Message Hub
Working knowledge of securing workloads for the cloud
Working knowledge of IBM Bluemix Garage Method
Understanding of unique DevOps concerns in hybrid cloud environments

An IBM Certified Application Developer - Cloud Solutions v3 technical professional understands concepts essential to the development of Cloud applications. They will have experience creating applications on IBM Cloud. They understand how to build applications by deploying their code on Cloud platforms and extending them through managed services. This individual is able to perform these tasks with little to no assistance from product documentation, support or peers.

Key Areas of Competency:
Planning and implementing cloud ready applications
Enhancing cloud applications using managed services
Managing applications using continuous delivery toolchains and other Cloud services

Introduction to IBM Cloud 6%
Describe the different capabilities of IBM Cloud
Describe the different capabilities of IBM Cloud Private
Understand how resources are organized in IBM Cloud

IBM Cloud Compute Options 15%
Distinguish between the various IBM Cloud Platform compute options
Build a Cloud Foundry application
Understand Function-as-a-Service (FaaS) and build a serverless application using IBM Cloud Functions
Understand containers
Understand the core concepts of Kubernetes
Understand the core concepts of Helm
Deploy an application on IBM Cloud Kubernetes Service (IKS)

Design Cloud Native Applications 11%
Understand the Twelve-Factor App methodology
Understand the IBM Web Application Reference Architecture for IBM Cloud
Understand microservices architecture
Understand service mesh

Security and Integration 15%
Add single sign-on capabilities to an application
Perform hybrid cloud integration
Enable loosely coupled integration using Messaging Services
Improve performance and scalability of IBM Cloud applications with caching

Data services 13%
Use the different data services
Demonstrate knowledge of IBM Cloudant
Develop an application to utilize IBM Cloud Object Storage (ICOS)

DevOps and Continuous Delivery 13%
Describe the capabilities of DevOps
Understand the Garage Method Phases and Practices
Understand the capabilities of IBM Cloud Continuous Delivery and the Delivery Pipeline

Managing a running cloud application 7%
Understand how to auto-scale an application
Perform Load Testing
Explain how to monitor an application

Augmeting applications with Emerging Technologies 15%
Understand Watson services
Understand Blockchain
Understand Watson IoT
Understand adding Machine Learning/Deep Learning



QUESTION: 1
A developer needs to transform, aggregate, and process data records continuously in Message Hub
and produce records. Which API is designed for this purpose?

A. KSQL
B. The MQ Light API
C. The Kafka Connect API
D. The Kafka Streams API

Answer: D


QUESTION: 2
Which cf command scales an IBM Cloud Foundry application horizontally?

A. $ cf scale myApp
B. $ cf scale myApp - i 5
C. $ cf scale myApp - m 1G
D. $ cf scale myApp - k 512M

Answer: B


QUESTION: 3
In an Auto-Scaling policy definition, which field defines the interval of time to ignore other scaling
requests after a scale out has occurred?

A. Breach duration
B. Statistics Window
C. Cooldown period for scaling in
D. Cooldown period for scaling out

Answer: D


QUESTION: 4
Which service should a developer use to create an application to store data that has no defined
structure to it?

A. Db2
B. Cloudant
C. Informix
D. Compose for MySQL

Answer: D


QUESTION: 5
What is the minimum Cloud Foundry role needed in order for a user to invite a developer to work
within a Cloud Foundry space?

A. Account Owner
B. Space Level Auditor
C. Organization Level Manager
D. Organization Level Developer

Answer: C
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Saturday, August 31, 2019

1z0-1050 Oracle Payroll Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials

Exam Title: Oracle Payroll Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1050
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 74
Passing Score: 64%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against 19B. (Previous version of this exam was validated against 18B in 2018)

Recommended Training
Take Recommended Training Courses

Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Payroll Concepts
Describe cloud Human Resources and the cloud payroll person models
Describe legislative data groups
Describe payroll statutory units
Create payroll users and roles

Earnings and Deduction Definitions
Create an earnings or deduction element
Explain the behavior of an element
Create element entry business rules
Configure an absence element
Add eligibility rules for an element
Create rules for retroactive changes

Payroll Costing Rules
Describe the levels of a costing hierarchy
Set up a payroll cost allocation flexfield
Configure various types of costing
Perform a transfer to subledger accounting and a posting to GL

Payroll Flows
Copy a flow pattern
Edit a flow pattern
Define parameters for tasks within a flow pattern
Submit a payroll flow

Payroll and Balance Definitions
Configure a payroll definition
Configure a balance definition
Edit payment dates

Payroll Payment Details
Add company payment details
Explain how to configure a payslip report
Add third-party payment details

Employee Level Payroll Information
Add a standard earnings entry earning or deduction to an employee
Add bank account details for an employee
Enter payroll frequency details for an employee
Manage absences for an employee
Explain how to initialize payroll balances
Manage costing for a person

Calculate, Validate and Correct Payroll Processes
Describe the Payroll Checklist
Verify the results of a payroll run
Correct the payroll run details for an employee
Submit and verify the results of the payment process
Confirm the status of the payroll flow
Verify the results of the costing process
Describe how to reconcile the payroll

Question: 1
A customer has asked for notifications to be sent for tasks within a flow pattern. Notifications can be
sent based on the statuses of the flow task.
Which option should the task statuses that are supported?

A. Error, Warning, Complete
B. Error or Warning
C. Error, Warning, Complete, In Progress
D. All statuses

Answer: C

Question: 2
Which two delivered reports can be used to view the results of a payroll run immediately after running the Calculate Payroll process? (Choose two.)

A. Payroll Activity Report
B. Payroll Balance Report
C. Payment Register Report
D. Payroll Register Report

Answer: A,B

Question: 3
Your customer is using HCM cloud Absences. Where is the absence information passed from absences to payroll held in the application?

A. User-defined tables.
B. Absence information is not passed from cloud absences to cloud payroll.
C. Input values
D. Value definitions

Answer: C

Question: 4
You hire an employee on 01-JAN-2016. The employee is in the process of moving bank accounts and is yet to create a personal payment method. How will the employee receive their payroll payment for
the month of January?

A. They will be paid by check, because this is the default payment method on the employee’s payroll.
B. They won’t receive payment until they have created a personal payment method.
C. A cash payment request will be sent to accounts payable, and the employee will be paid in cash.
D. The payment process will error and they will not receive payment for the month of January.

Answer: A

Question: 5
If the status of a task on the checklist is “On Hold”, what actions can be taken against that task?

A. Mark for Retry
B. Skip, Retry, and Submit
C. Resubmit, Force Resubmit, and Skip
D. Resubmit, Rollback, and Skip

Answer: B

Question: 6
Which two seed job roles have access to the Setup and Maintenance work area and can access all payroll setup tasks? (Choose two.)

A. Application Implementation Consultant
B. Payroll Interface Coordinator
C. Payroll Administrator
D. Payroll Manager

Answer: CD

Question: 7
You have run the payroll calculation and several workers have an error status.
What action should you take to remove the payroll calculation results for all workers?

A. Delete Records
B. Rollback
C. Retry
D. Mark for Retry

Answer: B
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Thursday, August 29, 2019

C1000-004 IBM Cúram SPM V7.X Application Developer

Number of questions: 70
Number of questions to pass: 45
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live This exam consists of 5 sections described below.

Section 1: IBM Cúram SPM Technical Infrastructure 21%
Differentiate between the components of IBM Cúram Social Program Management (SPM), including the Application Modules and the SPM Platform
State the purpose of the main components in the runtime architecture
List the main sources of information for customizing the IBM Cúram SPM application
Identify the project folders, file types, and tools in the IBM Cúram SPM Application Development Environment (ADE)
Select the appropriate build target for a particular task
Identify the relevant features for localizing applications
Perform tracing and troubleshooting
Describe the recommended approach for customizing the out-of-the-box application
Perform impact analysis to determine the changes required for customizations and IBM Cúram SPM version upgrades

Section 2: Server-Side Development 30%
Model the following classes: Domain Definition, Entity, Struct, Process, and Façade
Model the following associations: Index, Foreign Key, Assignable, and Aggregation
Define appropriate stereotype operations for Entity, Process, and Facade classes
Configure Cúram properties in the application model
Use generated artifacts in application code
Define code tables, data manager files, and message files
Implement exception handling and validation
Import and export configuration data

Section 3: Client-Side Development 20%
Use common UIM elements: PAGE, CLUSTER, FIELD, CONNECT, LINK, PAGE_PARAMETER, SOURCE, TARGET, SERVER_INTERFACE, ACTION_SET, ACTION_CONTROL
Implement UIM pages for CRUDL (create, read, update, delete, and list) applications
Configure application navigation features
Implement the following client features: multiple submit, select lists, views, wizards, in-page navigation, help, editable lists, expandable lists, and containers
Add logic to UIM pages using scriptlets, JavaScript, and the CONDITION element

Section 4: Server-Side Customization 21%
Customize the following artifacts compliantly: message files, code tables, data manager files, server configuration files, and configurable validations
Customize modeled classes compliantly
Customize non-modeled classes compliantly
Implement web services and REST APIs for real-time integration
Implement custom events, deferred processes, and batch jobs

Section 5: Client-Side Customization 8%
Customize pages, navigation, and property files compliantly
List and describe the options for customizing widgets

The sample test is designed to give the candidate an idea of the content and format of the questions that will be on the certification exam. Performance on the sample test is NOT an indicator of performance on the certification exam. This should not be considered an assessment tool.

This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A1000-004 Assessment: IBM Cúram SPM V7.X Application Developer

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.
This assessment exam is available in: English

Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.

You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

To prepare for this certification test, it is essential that candidates study the following courses:

9D73G - IBM Cúram SPM for Developers (ADE) 7.X
9D74G - IBM Cúram SPM for Developers (Customization) 7.X

In addition, hands-on experience of using the IBM Cúram SPM Application Development Environment (ADE) is an essential part of preparing for this test. Candidates must spend time using the IBM Cúram SPM ADE to apply the skills that are taught during the mandatory courses.

It is strongly recommended that certification candidates take the Assessment Test (A1000-004) before they attempt the Certification Test (C1000-004).

The Assessment Test contains the same number of questions as the Certification Test and is designed to have the same level of difficulty, which makes it a great way to prepare for the Certification Test. In addition, the score that you achieve on the Assessment Test provides a clear indication of whether you are ready to take the Certification Test or need to put in more prep work.

It is also recommended that test candidates take the following courses before they take 9D73G and 9D74G. However, it is not essential to take the following courses as part of test preparation:

9D75G - Introduction to IBM Cúram Social Program Management 7.X: Functional Overview
9D63G - IBM Cúram Social Program Management (SPM) 6.X Technical Overview

The following sandbox environment allows candidates to practice using the IBM Cúram SPM development environment:

9D77G - IBM Cúram SPM Development Environment 7.X: Expert Arena
Self-Paced Virtual Classroom

IBM Cúram SPM for Developers (ADE) 7.X

This self-paced training course provides learners with a technical understanding of the IBM Cúram Social Program Management (SPM) Platform Application Development Environment (ADE).

IBM Cúram SPM for Developers (Customization) 7.X

This self-paced training course provides learners with an understanding of customizing IBM Cúram out-of-the-box (OOTB) solutions using the IBM Cúram Application Development Environment (ADE).
QUESTION: 1
Which two of the following are valid targets for the server-side build command?

A. generated
B. beandoc
C. codetables
D. messages
E. database

Answer: A,E

QUESTION: 2
You have two structs, StructA and StructB, StuctA contains an attribute called att1 of type
MYDOMAIN1. based on SVR_INTS4 StructB contains an attribute called att1 of type MYDOMAIN2.
based on SVR_STRING
What happens when the assignment statement structA. assign(structB) is executed?

A. It auto casts structA's attribute data types to match that of structB.
B. It auto casts structB's attribute data types to match that of structA.
C. It will throw a cast error
D. lt will throw error "assign method cannot have arguments"

Answer: C

QUESTION: 3
Customization of out-of-the-box (OOTB) artifacts is implemented in IBM Curam SPM by overriding
OOTB artifacts with custom ones or by merging OOTB artifacts with custom ones.
Which two artifact types are customized by merging?

A. "-config.xml
B. *.nav
C. ".properties
D. uim
E. *.vim

Answer: C,D

QUESTION: 4
Suppose that you created a new Process class in your model and performed a build generated command.
What do you need to do next?

A. Implement the methods in the generated impl version of the class.
B. Copy the generated impl class from the build/svr/genftemp folder into the impl package.
C. Implement the modeled methods in the base class.
D. Create a new class in the impl package.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 5
How is the menu option button in this created?

A. A PAGE-level ACTION_SET with more than 2 ACTION_CONTROLs is added.
B. A PAGE-level ACTlON_SET with 1 ACTION_CONTROL containing a LINK element is added.
C. A LIST-level ACTlON_SET with 1 ACTION_CONTROL containing a LINK element is added.
D. A LIST-level ACTlON_SET with more than 2 ACTION_CONTROLs is added.

Answer: A
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Tuesday, August 27, 2019

2V0-51.19 VMware Professional Horizon 7.7 Exam 2019

Exam Details
The Professional Horizon 7.7 Exam (2V0-51.19) which leads to VMware Certified Professional – Desktop and Mobility 2019 certification is a 65-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 105 minutes, which includes five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers. Actual exam time is 100 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers, world-wide. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for certification attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has a foundation in vSphere implementation and administration. The candidate possesses typical vSphere skills, including creating and administering virtual machines, configuring host networking and storage, working with DRS, HA, and other cluster-related vSphere features. The candidate has built upon this foundation with 6-12 months of experience installing, configuring, and maintaining VMware Horizon environments. The successful candidate will likely have additional industry-recognized certifications and 2-5 years of general IT experience. The MQC should have all the knowledge contained in the VCP – Desktop and Mobility exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections
Section 1 - Install and Configure Horizon Server Components
Objective 1.1 - Describe techniques to prepare environment for Horizon
Objective 1.2 - Determine procedures to install Horizon Components

2V0-51.19 VMware Professional Horizon 7.7 Exam 2019
VMware Certified logo is restricted to individuals who have achieved the respective certification. v1.0 2
Objective 1.3 - Determine steps to configure Horizon Components
Objective 1.4 - Analyze End User Requirements for Display Protocol Performance
Objective 1.5 - Diagnose and solve issues related to connectivity between Horizon server Components

Section 2 - Create and Configure Pools
Objective 2.1 - Configure and Manage Horizon Pools
Objective 2.2 - Build and Customize RDSH Server and Desktop Images
Section 3 – *Section 3 has been removed from this exam
Section 4 - Configure and Manage Identity Manager
Objective 4.1 - Install and Configure VMware Identity Manager
Objective 4.2 - Manage VMware Identity Manager

Section 5 - Configure and Manage User Environment Manager
Objective 5.1 - Install and Configure VMware User Environment Manager
Objective 5.2 - Manage VMware User Environment Manager

Section 6 - Configure and Manage App Volumes
Objective 6.1 - Install and Configure VMware App Volumes
Objective 6.2 - Manage VMware AppStacks and writeable Volumes
Section 7 - Configure vRealize Operations for Horizon
Objective 7.1 - Install and Configure the adapter instance and Horizon Broker Agent

Recommended Courses
VMware Horizon 7: Install, Configure, Manage [V7.3]
VMware Horizon 7: Install, Configure, Manage [V7.3] – On Demand
VMware Horizon 7: Install, Configure, Manage plus App Volumes Fast Track [7.3]
VMware Horizon 7: Troubleshooting and Performance Optimization [V7]
*VMware Horizon content in this exam based on v7.7. Review all 7.7 release notes and material for features and function.
Question: 1
Which are two custom setup options when installing VMware Horizon Agent on a master image? (Choose two.)

A. USB Redirection
B. Windows Media Multimedia Redirection
C. VMWare Horizon Instant Clone Agent
D. Unity Touch

Answer: A,D

Question: 2
An administrator connects to View Administrator and sees that the dashboard health indicator is red for the View Connection Server instance.
Clicking the red health indicator displays SSL Certificate: Invalid
What setting should the administrator review when troubleshooting this issue?

A. Verify that the certificate is added to the certificate authority’s revocation list
B. Verify that the certificate has a friendly name of view
C. Verify that the certificate is imported into the Personal folder in the Microsoft Windows local computer certificate store
D. Verify that the SSL service is running on the View Connection Server instance

Answer: C

Question: 3
What is the effect of changing any VMware Blast policy that cannot be changed in real time?

A. VMware Tools services is restarted by Microsoft GPO Update service
B. Microsoft GPO update rules apply. GPOs are updated manually or by restarting the Horizon Agent
C. VMware Tools detects the change and immediately applies the new setting within 480 seconds
D. Horizon Client detects the change and prompts the user to reboot once every 480 seconds

Answer: B

Question: 4
What is the default behavior for AppVolumes drive letter assignments?

A. For writable volumes the drive letter is hidden, and for AppStack volumes the drive letter is not assigned
B. Drive letters are not assigned for both AppStack and writable volumes
C. For writable volumes the driver letter is not assigned, and for AppStack volumes the drive letter is hidden
D. Drive letters are assigned and hidden for both AppStack and writable volumes

Answer: A
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